Assouline Jordan - Newcertification, La solution pour obtenir votre CCNA et votre CCNP

Préparation à la certification CCENT/ICND1 100-101 et CCNA 200-120


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Given a Class C IP address subnetted with a /30 subnet mask, how many valid host IP addresses are available on each of the subnets?

  • A. 1

  • B. 2

  • C. 4

  • D. 8

  • E. 252

  • F. 254

What is the best practice when assigning IP addresses in a small office of six hosts?

  • A. Use a DHCP server that is located at the headquarters.

  • B. Use a DHCP server that is located at the branch office.

  • C. Assign the addresses by using the local CDP protocol.

  • D. Assign the addresses statically on each node.

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has configured a Catalyst 2950 switch for remote management by pasting into the console the configuration commands that are shown in the exhibit. However, a Telnet session cannot be successfully established from a remote host. What should be done to fix this problem?

  • A. Change the first line to interface fastethernet 0/1.

  • B. Change the first line to interface vlan 0/1.

  • C. Change the fifth line to ip default-gateway

  • D. Change the fifth line to ip route

  • E. Change the sixth line to line con 0.

Refer to the exhibit.

The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space. through through

 What are three problems with this design ? (Choose three)

  • A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

  • B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.

  • C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.

  • D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.

  • E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.

  • F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.

The network manager has requested a 300-workstation expansion of the network. The workstations are to be installed in a single broadcast domain, but each workstation must have its own collision domain. The expansion is to be as cost-effective as possible while still meeting the requirements. Which three items will adequately fulfill the request? (Choose three). 

  • A. one IP subnet with a mask of

  • B. two IP subnets with a mask of

  • C. seven 48-port hubs

  • D. seven 48-port switches

  • E. one router interface

  • F. seven router interfaces

PC1 pings PC2. What three things will CORE router do with the data that is received from PC1? (Choose three.)

  • A. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet0/1 of CORE router.

  • B. The data frames will be forwarded out interface FastEthernet1/0 of CORE router.

  • C. CORE router will replace the destination IP address of the packets with the IP address of PC2.

  • D. CORE router will replace the MAC address of PC2 in the destination MAC address of the frames.

  • E. CORE router will put the IP address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source IP address in the packets.

  • F. CORE router will put the MAC address of the forwarding FastEthernet interface in the place of the source MAC address.

Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two)
  • A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

  • B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

  • C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be

  • D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

  • E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Which two statements describe the IP address (Choose two.)

  • A. The subnet address is

  • B. The lowest host address in the subnet is

  • C. The last valid host address in the subnet is

  • D. The broadcast address of the subnet is

  • E. The network is not subnetted.

Which characteristics are representative of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose three)
  • A. provides common view of entire topology

  • B. exchanges routing tables with neighbors

  • C. calculates shortest path

  • D. utilizes event-triggered updates

  • E. utilizes frequent periodic updates

Which commands are required to properly configure a router to run OSPF and to add network to OSPF area 0? (Choose two)
  • A. Router(config)#router ospf 1

  • B. Router(config)#router ospf 0

  • C. Router(config)#router ospf area 0

  • D. Router(config-router)#network area 0

  • E. Router(config-router)#network 0

  • F. Router(config-router)#network area 0

Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
  • A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3.

  • B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12.

  • C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10.

  • D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.

  • E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.

Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.) 

  • A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.

  • B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.

  • C. Successor routes are flagged as 'active' in the routing table.

  • D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

  • E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

What does a router do if it has no EIGRP feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route to that destination network is in active status? 

  • A. It routes all traffic that is addressed to the destination network to the interface indicated in the routing table.

  • B. It sends a copy of its neighbor table to all adjacent routers.

  • C. It sends a multicast query packet to all adjacent neighbors requesting available routing paths to the destination network.

  • D. It broadcasts Hello packets to all routers in the network to re-establish neighbor adjacencies.

The internetwork infrastructure of company XYZ consists of a single OSPF area as shown in the graphic. There is concern that a lack of router resources is impeding internetwork performance. As part of examining the router resources, the OSPF DRs need to be known. All the router OSPF priorities are at the default and the router IDs are shown with each router. Which routers are likely to have been elected as DR? (Choose two.)

  • A. Corp-1

  • B. Corp-2

  • C. Corp-3

  • D. Corp-4

  • E. Branch-1

  • F. Branch-2

Which two are advantages of static routing when compared to dynamic routing? (Choose two.) 

  • A. Configuration complexity decreases as network size increases.

  • B. Security increases because only the network administrator may change the routing table.

  • C. Route summarization is computed automatically by the router.

  • D. An efficient algorithm is used to build routing tables, using automatic updates.

  • E. Routing updates are automatically sent to neighbors.

  • F. Routing traffic load is reduced when used in stub network links.

Refer to the exhibit.

The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

  • A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.

  • B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.

  • C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree

  • D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.

  • E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.

  • F. This switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.

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